Can this be proven analytically?
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If an estimate of an integral is made with the trapezium rule where n = infinity, is the result mathematically equivalent to the integral of that function?
>>7944668
if the function is riemann integrable yes.
>>7944668
I want to say that looks like a nice pen but judging from the little splattering around the lettering i'm not sure
It's either running too much ink onto the page or you're writing on watercolour paper
>mfw OP has not taken Calc 1
>mfw OP accidentally(?) discovers the definition of an integral
>>7945774
History repeats itself. :^)
>>7944668
Think really hard about what the dx on the end of your equations symbolizes.
