Brainlet here, got a question for smart robots, There are two identical objects, i apply 5 newtons of force on the first and it moves, i do the same to the second object but it doesn't move, the chance of this happening is non-zero, in this hypothetical situation if the cause of the first objects movement is applying the force then what is the effect of the force application on the second object if the two objects are stationary?
>>28886335
Something to do with the normal force?
>second object doesn't move
>what is the effect of the force application on the second object
Wouldn't the answer be "nothing" since it didn't move?
>>28886335
If you consider yourself a brainlet then I must be a fucking downy
>>28888107
I think this guy's right, no motion = no effect because now work is done (W=FdeltaX). It's a pretty bizarre question though, the force of static friction of the second object more or less has to be more than 5 newtons or else it would move (force of friction = coefficient of friction * normal force).
The second object is a medium for the 5 newtons to be transferred somewhere else. For example, if the 5 newtons of force were applied downward (weighed down) the second object, it would make sense for it to not move. The force application is transferred then to whatever the object is on top of.
>>28888323
My question was more in the lines of if there are two identical objects that in almost all instances move when exactly 5 newtons is applied, but something abnormal that has a non-zero probability of occurring occurs, which is that one of the object doesn't move, we're assuming both object are affected exactly the same by friction. Can this happen or does it brake some universal law?
>>28889225
The objects are tempered with in the exact same way.
You guys are dumb. Object two is obviously wedged against the wall.
>>28889225
>brake
It's break you stupid shit. The only situation in which this wouldn't fuck with universal law is if the identical objects are in different spaces relative to each other. Their positions in space would have to be different - because identical objects cannot exist simultaneously in the same space - and force applies would therefore movement the object differently.
All in all, it's a bad question, because it is utterly impractical; shit like that does not happen in the flux.
>>28889404
>It's break you stupid shit
>and force applies would therefore """"""""''''''movement'''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' the object differently
If they were truly identical and in identical situations (both in identical starting systems) then both will do the same thing with an identical force being applied. Of course you could have it be a spring that will compress in one direction if a force is applied but not the other bit you would have to appply the force differently.
Basically your question is 'are identical things identical?' To which the answer is yes. If you are asking if thing do different things when you treat them differently the answer is also yes. Either the systems are identical and produce identical results or they are different and produce different results.
Of course the fact you are talking about Newtons means I am assuming you are referring to classical deterministic systems. If you talk about quantum systems you can do the same thing to a quantum object and observe different results based on probabilistic distributions. However 5 newtons is far too much to observe these quantum effects.
Cba to proof read.
>>28889225
It's impossible. If both objects are identical you get the same results in the same situation, unless you go into all that quantum mechanics shit, which I'm not gonna do.
>>28889362
No, in that case you'd have to count the wall as a part of the object.
