What's the deal with Jeremiah 10:11? It's a single verse of Aramaic in what is otherwise a purely Hebrew composition. Is it just some later scribal interpolation? If so, how did it get there? If not, what's the deal?
I realize I probably won't get this, but please, serious responses only, try not to make this theological shit-flinging, just scholarship as to the development of the Bible.
Based on just a quick search it seems that it is a quote intended for aramaic speakers só it makes sense to say it in aramaic
Pure coincidence
>>919409
I'm not even sure Biblical Aramaic was a spoken language at the time of the composition of Jeremiah. It certainly wasn't a widespread one. And who is the quote directed to? The people of Tarshish and Uphaz? I'm not sure where Uphaz is, but Tarshish is usually identified either as Sardinia or Carthage, and neither of those are Aramaic speaking.
>>919753
Tarshish refers to Tyre's colony in Spain I believe
>>919753
>I'm not even sure Biblical Aramaic was a spoken language at the time of the composition of Jeremiah.
I've heard that Jeremiah is generally believed by scholars to be genuine, written by Jeremiah or those who knew him so if it isn't this could move it forward on the timeline. I'd be curious to see how scholars account for this
>>919976
At least according to wiki, there doesn't seem to be one definitive "date of composition" for Jeremiah, and that most biblical scholarship says that it was in revision for close to 400 years.
>>920080
that can pretty much be said for every book in the OT. but Jeremiah is believed to have come from Jeremiah like it claims, unlike Daniel.
