Are you retarded

>>8149201
> so the definition of infinite is something limitless or has no end
That's wrong though.
> how can we count to 2?
define counting. most people define it by applying the counting numbers to a set.
To count to 2, you'd go 1, 2

2 Isn't really an end point, it's more like a second starting point.

OP here to clarify a couple things

>>8149202
high chance of that yes

>>8149203
google's definition "limitless or endless in space, extent, or size; impossible to measure or calculate."

what I mean is how could 2 possibly exist if there exists an infinite amount of numbers between it and 1. I understand how it exists if we are talking whole numbers but if we consider each and every existing number in our base 10 counting system, is it possible we've just counted to infinite several times in pre-school?

>>8149201
>decimals and integers between them
integers are whole numbers, so there are none between 1 and 2

>how can there be an endless count of numbers between 1 and 2
Because the number line isn't discrete. You can cut up the line from 1 and 2 as many times as you want, you will never be able to cut it all the way down to individual fundamental pieces, because there are none. It's infinite in depth.

>>8149201
Simple: you can't count the infinite reals, or infinite rationals from 1 to 2. You can count the integers between 1 and 2 because there are only two.

>>8149205
>what I mean is how could 2 possibly exist if there exists an infinite amount of numbers between it and 1.
How does an infinite amount of numbers between 1 and 2 imply 2 does not exist? In order to say there is an infinite amount of numbers between 1 and 2, 2 must exist. Otherwise you are not saying anything.

>I understand how it exists if we are talking whole numbers but if we consider each and every existing number in our base 10 counting system, is it possible we've just counted to infinite several times in pre-school?
No, you don't have to count anything to say that a certain real number exists.

What you're thinking about is the uncountability of sets, OP. Some infinities are countable, such as the integers, and some infinities are uncountable, such as the reals which is the set of all "decimals".

>>8149201
you have the right idea, but if you really want to understand how this can be, you should study math yourself.

start with xeno's paradox. it answers how we count to 2

tl:dr your understanding of math is roughly equivalent to that of people 5000 years ago; you have some catching up to do

>there is a limitless amount of decimals

Don't get so hung up on this. Focus on your problem solving skills. Don't worry about infinity. Remember that you define the parameters that you're working with. There are only a "limitless" number of decimals between 1 and 2 if you're working in a system that allows for that. If you're working in the naturals, then there isn't, if you're working in the interval [4/4, 8/4], there are 4, and so on and so forth. If you don't allow for it (if you've ever done actual number crunching, you'll see why it isn't practical to allow for it), you'll realize you can still get the kind of results you need to do a good job at whatever it is you're doing.

Leave infinity to the theologians to think about. You can get "pretty far" (wink wink) without it.

>>8149204

good post

>>8149264
>xeno's paradox answers how we count to 2

no, there is no answer to infinity. that's the fucking point.

>>8149212

there aren't "different" infinities, and IT is countable. don't be a dumbass.

>>8149355
>there aren't "different" infinities, and IT is countable. don't be a dumbass.
There are and >>8149212 was exactly right.
If you dont at least know these basic facts you should not talk about them.

A short breakdown:
2 sets have the same amount of part if and only if there exists a bijective map between them.
The amount of parts the Natural numbers have is called "countable" and there exists a bijective map between the natural and rational numbers.
But there is no such map between the natural/ration numbers and the real numbers.
Both have infinite amounts of parts in them so indeed there exist different infinities.
In Fact there is also an easy way to create countable many different infinities.

In real numbers you can have infinite decimals, right?
So there are infinite decimals between [0.1, 0.2] aswell. They are called uncountable sets.

Its called 'Fuzzy Logic'
The closer you look the more fuzzy it becomes.

>>8151362
no.
Fuzzy logic has absolutely nothing do with it.
It is a question about the definition of numbers.