What's the difference for Kant between to think and to know?
I think you know you kant know
>muh noumena
>>7404659
You seem to know. Do you could help me where can I find the resolution to my problem?
>>7404659
Do doo, do doo doo
>>7404677
>>7404671
it's a hard question to answer
the tl;dr is that kant's epistemology is still debated
read this http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/kant-judgment/#KanVer
>>7404752
>>7404646
Knowing is a subset of thinking.
Within thinking there are judgments.
A judgment is either subjective or objective.
Knowing is an objective judgment.
It is to assert that S is P necessarily and universally.
That's what Kant would say about that.
>>7404773
Thanks! Do you know where i can find this in the Critique? The passage in which it is located.
>>7404804
Yeah, section 22 of the transcendental deduction around B 146.
Knowing might be translated "cognizing" and knowledge, "cognition," and so on.
>>7404823
Thank you so much!
>>7404823
Just more one question. Kant looks refer to pure form and pure intuition like the same thing. They can be treated as equals?
>>7404876
I want to say yes. Though it seems like if it's a question on your homework, the answer would be no.
He almost always talks about pure spatio-temporal forms of intuition, so if there is a difference, it is very subtle.
>>7404646
We can't know something outside the categories. We can think about fairies, gods, etc, but not KNOW them.
