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>all x < 1 and all x > -2 >-2 < x < 1 What's
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Anonymous
2016-06-14 10:40:17 Post No. 140284
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Anonymous 2016-06-14 10:40:17 Post No. 140284 [Report]
>all x < 1 and all x > -2
>-2 < x < 1

What's the difference between the two?
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Anonymous 2016-06-14 10:51:15 Post No.140287
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Anonymous 2016-06-14 10:51:15 Post No.140287 [Report]
There is no difference in terms of result
>>
Anonymous 2016-06-14 10:52:47 Post No.140289
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Anonymous 2016-06-14 10:52:47 Post No.140289 [Report]
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Also, how do you do this without the use of a calculator?
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Anonymous 2016-06-14 10:53:50 Post No.140291
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Anonymous 2016-06-14 10:53:50 Post No.140291 [Report]
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>>140287
Then which option would you choose here?
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Anonymous 2016-06-14 10:58:20 Post No.140292
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Anonymous 2016-06-14 10:58:20 Post No.140292 [Report]
>>140291
5.
One who created this question and answers is retarded.
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Anonymous 2016-06-14 10:59:24 Post No.140293
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Anonymous 2016-06-14 10:59:24 Post No.140293 [Report]
>>140289
http://www.regentsprep.org/regents/math/algtrig/ato3/rdlesson.htm
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Anonymous 2016-06-14 19:12:32 Post No.140476
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Anonymous 2016-06-14 19:12:32 Post No.140476 [Report]
>>140291
1
the difference is only in the wording
the question asks for "all x"
the answer should also be "all x"
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Anonymous 2016-06-14 19:21:50 Post No.140481
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Anonymous 2016-06-14 19:21:50 Post No.140481 [Report]
>>140476
5 ended up being the correct answer
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Anonymous 2016-06-15 01:41:56 Post No.140690
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Anonymous 2016-06-15 01:41:56 Post No.140690 [Report]
>>140287
>>140476
Not true.
>all x < 1 and all x > -2
This means: the union of (-∞, 1) and (-2, ∞), which is (-∞, ∞), i.e. "all real x". This is wrong.
The question tests whether OP understands English.
Thread replies: 9
Thread images: 3
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